EMRS Recruitment 2023 : TGT AND WARDEN, Admit card
EKLAVYA MODEL RESIDENTIAL SCHOOL (EMRS)
INFORMATION BULLETIN & GUIDELINES FOR
FILLING OF ONLINE APPLICATION FORM FOR
EMRS STAFF SELECTION EXAM (ESSE)-2023
National Education Society for Tribal
Students
Objectives of EMRS
• Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRSs) are being established with the objective of providing quality education from Class VI to XII students belonging to ST category. These schools will be set up at block level as residential schools and will have separate hostels for boys and girls, accommodation for teachers, mess facility, playground and all other amenities in line with Navodaya Vidyalayas. For details of locations and amenities, please visit web site of EMRS. EMRS being fully residential institutions, teaching and non-teaching staff are required to stay on campus for which rent free accommodation, as available will be provided.
CHAPTER-2 IMPORTANT INFORMATION AT A GLANCE
Exam Dates, Fee details and Application Procedure
|
EVENTS |
DATES/FEES |
|
Online Submission of Application Form
(up to 23:50 Hrs. of 18/08/2023) |
-------- |
|
Fee Payable for ESSE-2023 *Processing charges on the applications fee and Goods &
Service Taxes (GST) thereon as applicable, are to be borne by the
candidate at the time of transaction |
Online mode only. |
|
TGT |
Rs. 1500/- |
|
Hostel Warden |
Rs. 1000/- |
|
Downloading of Admit Cards from NESTS
website |
Will be notified on
NESTS website |
|
Date of Examinations |
Will be notified on
NESTS website |
|
Duration of Examination |
180 minutes for
Teaching Staff and 150 minutes for
Non-teaching Staff |
|
Centre of Examination |
As indicated on Admit
Card |
|
Display of different sets of Question
Paper and corresponding Answer Keys for inviting challenges on
NESTS website |
To be displayed on the NESTS website in
due course |
|
Declaration of OMR Based Test Result on NESTS website |
To be displayed on the NESTS website in
due course |
Trained Graduate Teachers (TGTs) (Group-B):
|
S.No. |
Subject |
Total |
UR |
EWS |
OBC (NCL) |
SC |
ST |
OH |
VI |
HI |
Others |
|
1 |
Hindi |
606 |
248 |
60 |
163 |
90 |
45 |
6 |
6 |
6 |
6 |
|
2 |
English |
671 |
273 |
67 |
181 |
100 |
50 |
6 |
7 |
7 |
7 |
|
3 |
Maths |
686 |
280 |
68 |
185 |
102 |
51 |
7 |
7 |
7 |
7 |
|
4 |
Social Studies |
670 |
273 |
67 |
180 |
100 |
50 |
7 |
6 |
6 |
7 |
|
5 |
Science |
678 |
277 |
67 |
183 |
101 |
50 |
7 |
7 |
7 |
7 |
|
Total |
3311 |
1351 |
329 |
892 |
493 |
246 |
33 |
33 |
33 |
34 |
|
|
OH |
VI |
HI |
Others |
|
Col.I |
Col.II |
Col.III |
Col.IV |
|
OA, OL, AAV, Dw,
LC |
LV |
HH |
Multiple disabilities mentioned in Col. I to III |
|
S.No. |
Subject (Language) |
No. of vacancies |
UR |
EWS |
OBC (NCL) |
SC |
ST |
OH |
VI |
HI |
Others |
|
1 |
Bengali |
10 |
6 |
1 |
2 |
1 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
|
2 |
Gujarati |
44 |
20 |
4 |
11 |
6 |
3 |
0 |
1 |
1 |
0 |
|
3 |
Kannada |
24 |
12 |
2 |
6 |
3 |
1 |
1 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
|
4 |
Malayalam |
2 |
2 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
|
5 |
Manipuri |
6 |
5 |
0 |
1 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
|
6 |
Marathi |
52 |
23 |
5 |
14 |
7 |
3 |
0 |
1 |
0 |
1 |
|
7 |
Odiya |
25 |
13 |
2 |
6 |
3 |
1 |
0 |
0 |
1 |
0 |
|
8 |
Telugu |
102 |
43 |
10 |
27 |
15 |
7 |
1 |
1 |
1 |
1 |
|
9 |
Urdu |
6 |
5 |
0 |
1 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
|
10 |
Mizo |
2 |
2 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
0 |
|
11 |
Sanskrit |
358 |
148 |
35 |
96 |
53 |
26 |
4 |
4 |
3 |
4 |
|
12 |
Santali |
21 |
10 |
2 |
5 |
3 |
1 |
0 |
1 |
0 |
0 |
|
Total |
652 |
289 |
61 |
169 |
91 |
42 |
6 |
8 |
6 |
6 |
|
OH |
VI |
HI |
Others |
|
Col.I |
Col.II |
Col.III |
Col.IV |
|
OA, OL, AAV, Dw,
LC |
LV |
HH |
Multiple disabilities
mentioned in Col. I to III |
|
S.No. |
Subject |
Total |
UR |
EWS |
OBC (NCL) |
SC |
ST |
OH |
VI |
HI |
Others |
|
1 |
Music |
320 |
130 |
32 |
86 |
48 |
24 |
6 |
6 |
0 |
0 |
|
2 |
Art |
342 |
140 |
34 |
92 |
51 |
25 |
3 |
3 |
3 |
3 |
|
3 |
PET (Male) |
321 |
131 |
32 |
86 |
48 |
24 |
7 |
0 |
8 |
0 |
|
4 |
PET (Female) |
345 |
142 |
34 |
93 |
51 |
25 |
7 |
0 |
7 |
0 |
|
5 |
Librarian |
369 |
152 |
36 |
99 |
55 |
27 |
5 |
0 |
5 |
5 |
|
Total |
1697 |
695 |
168 |
456 |
253 |
125 |
28 |
9 |
23 |
8 |
|
|
Name of post |
OH |
VI |
HI |
Others |
|
Col.I |
Col.II |
Col.III |
Col.IV |
|
|
Music |
OL, Dw, AAV, LC |
LV |
-- |
-- |
|
Art |
OA, OL, AAV, Dw,
LC |
LV |
HH |
Multiple disabilities
mentioned in Col. I to III |
|
PET (Male) |
AAV |
-- |
HH |
-- |
|
PET (Female) |
AAV |
-- |
HH |
-- |
|
Librarian |
OA, OL, OAL, Dw,
AAV, LC |
-- |
HH |
Multiple disabilities
mentioned in Col. I & III |
|
S.No. |
Name of Post |
Total |
UR |
EWS |
OBC (NCL) |
SC |
ST |
OH |
VI |
HI |
Others |
ESM |
|
1 |
Hostel Warden (Male) |
335 |
137 |
33 |
90 |
50 |
25 |
0 |
0 |
13 |
0 |
33 |
|
2 |
Hostel Warden (Female) |
334 |
136 |
33 |
90 |
50 |
25 |
0 |
0 |
14 |
0 |
33 |
|
Total |
669 |
273 |
66 |
180 |
100 |
50 |
0 |
0 |
27 |
0 |
66 |
|
|
Name of post |
OH |
VI |
HI |
Others |
|
Col.I |
Col.II |
Col.III |
Col.IV |
|
|
Hostel Warden
(Male) |
-- |
-- |
HH |
-- |
|
Hostel Warden (Female) |
-- |
-- |
HH |
-- |
Other instructions: -
a. Only Indian citizens are eligible to apply.
b. The vacancies for the posts included in this recruitment notification are tentative and may increase or decrease.
c. NESTS reserves the right to fill or not to fill or partially fill any of the above vacancies without assigning any reasons whatsoever. NESTS also reserves the right to cancel/ restrict / modify/ alter the recruitment process, if required, without giving any further notice or assigning any reasons thereof.
d. The recruitment shall be in accordance with the recruitment rules notified by NESTS and recruited Staff will be the employees of NESTS.
e. Qualification acquired by the candidates should be strictly in accordance with the notified / prescribed qualifications only and necessary certificates should be produced at the time of document verification.
f. The cut-off date for determining various eligibility criteria (Educational Qualifications, age limit etc.) will be 18/08/2023. Before applying, applicants must satisfy themselves about their eligibility as on 18/08/2023.
g. The Reservation policy of Govt. of India applicable for direct recruitment on all India basis will be followed.
h. A post-wise waitlist of ten percent of the candidates in the final post-wise merit list shall be maintained for a period of one year by NESTS. However, NESTS does not guarantee appointment to candidates whose names appear in the waitlist.
i. The final selection of the candidates will be based on marks obtained in written test as has been specified under Para 3.3 (Scheme of Exam).
j. The list of short-listed candidates for recruitment to all the posts included in this recruitment notification will be displayed on the NESTS website. No separate correspondence will be entertained in this regard.
k. NESTS shall be responsible for final selection and implementation of reservation roster. NESTS may take up the verification of eligibility of the candidate at any point of time prior to or after the completion of the selection process. Even if Admit Card is issued to a candidate due to lack of information in the application form or otherwise and if it is found at any stage (including the date of joining & thereafter) that the candidate is not eligible, then his/ her candidature shall be summarily rejected.
l. The candidate’s response sheet and other related papers/documents of examination in respect of this recruitment shall be kept as record for two months only from the date of publication of result.
m. Posting for TGT and Hostel Warden applicants: Placement will be made on the combined objective criteria of merit, regional language qualifying exam and vacancies in a particular state. However, the selected candidates can be posted in any EMRS across the country. Posting will be at the sole discretion of NESTS.
n. Selected candidates will initially be on probation for a period of two years, whichcan be extended at the discretion of the Competent Authority. During the probation period, services of probationer can be terminated at any time without assigning any reason thereof.
o. The candidates should take a printout of the online application and preserve it for their record and should not send the same to NESTS or to any other address. The application printout will also have to be submitted at the time of interviews/document verification along with the self-attested copies of certificates in support of Age, Qualification, Experience, Caste, Non-Creamy Layer, Physical disability & Economically Weaker Section (EWS), as applicable.
p. The name of the candidate and his/her father/mother/husband etc. should be spelt correctly in the application as it appears in the certificates/mark sheets. Any change/alteration found may disqualify the candidature.
3.2 Post Details and Level of Pay:
|
S. No. |
Post Details |
Subjects |
Pay Matrix |
|
1. |
Trained Graduate Teachers (TGTs) |
English / Hindi /
Mathematics / Science/Social
Studies/3rd Language/ Librarian |
Level 7 (Rs.44900 – 142400/-) |
|
2. |
Other TGTs (Miscellaneous
posts) |
Music/Art/PET (Male)/PET (Female) |
Level 6 (Rs. 35400- 112400) |
|
3. |
Hostel Warden |
- |
Level 5 (Rs. 29200 – 92300) |
3.3.1 Mode of Examination
EMRS Staff Selection Exam (ESSE-2023) will be conducted in “OMR Based (Pen-Paper)” mode.
3.3.2 Choice of Medium of Question/Exam Papers
Medium of Examination will be both Hindi and English. However, in case of TGTs, Miscellaneous Category Teachers and Hostel Warden, the Language Competency Test in Part-VI will be conducted in Regional Language opted by the candidate. Further, for the post of TGT (Third Language), the medium of test for Part V (Domain Knowledge) will be in concerned third language.
3.3.3 Exam Pattern TGTs
• Exam (Objective Type): 120 marks
• Language Competency Test -30 marks
|
Component
of the test |
Number
of questions |
Total marks |
Duration of the
Test |
|
|
Part-I |
General Awareness |
10 |
10 |
The test will be
of 3 hours duration without any time
limit for each part of the test individually. |
|
Part-II |
Reasoning Ability |
10 |
10 |
|
|
Part-III |
Knowledge of ICT |
10 |
10 |
|
|
Part-IV |
Teaching Aptitude |
10 |
10 |
|
|
Part-V |
Domain Knowledge: a) Subject specific syllabus – Difficulty level Graduation b) Experiential
activity-based pedagogy and case study-based questions. c) NEP-2020 d) Khelo India, Fit India and other similar programs of
Govt of India (for PETs only) |
80 [65+10+5(c+d)] |
80 |
|
|
Total |
120 |
120 |
||
|
Part-VI |
Language Competency
General Hindi, General English and Regional Language* (10 marks
each subject). This part is qualifying in nature only with
minimum 40% marks in each language. Part-I to V of the candidate will
not be evaluated, if he/she fails to attain qualifying marks in
Part-VI. |
30 |
30 |
* (1) Bengali (2) Dogri (3) English (4) Garo (5) Gujarati (6) Hindi, (7) Kannada (8) Kashmiri (9) Khasi (10) Malayalam (11) Manipuri (12) Marathi (13) Mizo (14) Nepali (15) Odiya (16) Santhali (17) Telugu (18) Urdu
Option of Regional Language is limited to Scheduled languages of the States having notified vacancies.
Every candidate has to opt 01 language out of aforementioned Scheduled languages. However, the standard of English & Hindi for those who are opting one of these two languages as regional language also, will be higher than the standard as that of General English and General Hindi.
Hostel warden Exam (Objective type): 120 marks
|
Test |
Component of the test |
Number of questions |
Total Marks |
Duration of the test |
|
Part-I |
General Awareness |
10 |
10 |
The test will be of 2 ½ hours duration without any time limit for each part of the test individually. |
|
Part-II |
Reasoning Ability |
20 |
20 |
|
|
Part-III |
Knowledge of ICT |
20 |
20 |
|
|
Part-IV |
Knowledge of POCSO and
other children safety related Acts of Govt of India. |
10 |
10 |
|
|
Part-V |
Administrative Aptitude |
30 |
30 |
|
|
Part-VI |
Language Competency
General Hindi, General English and Regional Language*(10 marks
each subject). |
30 |
30 |
|
|
Total |
120 |
120 |
Option of Regional Language is limited to Scheduled languages of the States having notified vacancies
Every candidate has to opt 01 language out of aforementioned Scheduled languages. However, the standard of English & Hindi for those who are opting one of these two languages as regional language also, will be higher than the standard as that of General English and General Hindi.
3.4 Marking Scheme
One mark (1) shall be awarded to every correct answer and 0.25 shall be deducted for every incorrect answer. Unanswered questions will not be given any marks.
Important Note for Multiple Choice Questions-To answer a question, the candidates need to mark only one option on the OMR sheet corresponding to the correct answer. However, if during the process of scanning of OMR sheets, more than one option is found marked by the candidate against a question, it will not be assessed (i.e. no marks will be awarded for such question). Further, if any misprinting or ambiguity in any of the question is noticed by the subject experts at the time of verification of challenges of answer keys after conduct of examination, a policy decision will be taken as per the recommendation of subject experts.
Display of Scanned Image of OMR Answer Sheet and Answer Key
The OMR answer sheet and the Answer Keys of examination will be displayed on website of NESTS for which a public notice will also be issued on the website https://ctet.nic.in. The candidates may download the same in the stipulated time as notified in the Public Notice. The Answer Keys are likely to be displayed for two to three days to provide an opportunity to the candidates to challenge the answer(s) with a non refundable prescribed fee of Rs.1000/- per question as processing charges, in case they are not satisfied with any of the answer(s). Only paid challenges made during stipulated time will be considered. Challenges without payment of fee and those submitted on any other medium (viz. email/letter/representation) will not be considered. The subject experts will examine all the challenges received and then the final answer keys will be prepared by them. The decision of subject experts on the challenges shall be final and no further communication will be entertained. The candidates will not be informed individually about the status of their challenges. The result will be declared according to the final answer keys prepared by the subject experts. In case challenge on answer key(s) is accepted by the subject expert(s), the amount will be refunded to concerned candidate after declaration of result.
No grievance with regard to answer key(s) after declaration of result will bentertained.
3.5 Syllabus for Examination
The details of the syllabus for each post are given on the website and Appendix -I.
3.6 General Instructions
• The e-Admit Card would be issued to the candidates through the NESTS website subject to the fulfillment of the eligibility conditions and receipt of prescribed application fee.
• Candidate may please note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post.
• In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for EMRS Staff Selection Exam- 2023 would be issued at the Examination Centres.
• The candidates will appear in the examination at the given Centre on the date and shift/timing as indicated in his/her e-Admit Card.
• No candidate will be allowed to appear at the examination center, on the date and shift/time other than that allotted to him/her in his/her Admit card.
• In case a candidate is unable to download his/her Admit Card from the website, he/she should approach the Help Line Number 011-22240112 between 09:00 am to 05:30 pm on working days or email his/her query on emrs.recruitment23@gmail.com.
• The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully and strictly follow them during the examination.
• The candidates’ data/photo/signature on the admit card is printed from the particulars filled by the candidates in their online application form. The requests for any correction in the particulars shown on admit card will not be entertained. However, in case of any other discrepancy related to date of examination, details of examination centre/city etc., the candidate may immediately approach the Help Line Number 011-22240112 between 09:00 am to 05:30 pm on working days or email his/her query on emrs.recruitment23@gmail.com. All such queries shall be entertained till the date specified on the NESTS website.
• Candidate must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein.
• Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for future reference. • No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose Applications are found to be incomplete for any reasons (including indistinct/ doubtful photographs/unsigned Applications) or who do not fulfill the eligibility criteria for the examination.
• Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which shall be further scrutinized at subsequent stages of selection process.
3.7 Important Instructions for the Candidates:
1 Candidates are advised to report at the Examination Centre 2 hours before commencement of the examination.
2 The candidate must show, on demand, the Admit Card for admission in the examination room/hall. The Test Centre Staff on duty is authorized to verify the identity of candidates and may take steps to verify and confirm the identity credentials. Candidates are requested to extend their full cooperation. A candidate who does not possess the valid Admit Card shall not be permitted for the examination under any circumstances by the Centre Superintendent.
3 A seat indicating Roll Number will be allotted to each candidate. Candidates should find and sit on their allocated seat only. In case, a candidate changes room/hall or the seat on his/her own rather than the one allotted, the candidature shall be cancelled. No plea would be entertained in this regard.
4 The candidate should ensure that the question paper distributed to him/her is as per his/her opted post indicated in the Admit Card. In case, the post of question paper is other than his/her opted post, the same may be brought to the notice of the Invigilator concerned.
5 Candidate may approach the Centre Superintendent/Invigilator in the room for any assistance, first aid emergency or any other information during the course of examination.
6 For those who are unable to appear on the scheduled date of test for any reason, re-test shall not be held under any circumstances.
Note: Candidates shall appear at their own cost at the Centre on date and shift as indicated in their Admit Card issued. Under no circumstance the Centre and shift provided in the Admit Card shall be changed.
|
Candidates MUST bring the following documents on the day of
examination at the test Centre. Candidates who will not bring these
will not be allowed to sit in the examination. a. Printed copy of Admit Card
downloaded from NESTS website. b. One passport size
photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) should be
taken for pasting on the specific space in the attendance sheet, if required,
at Centre during the examination. c. Any one of the
authorized photo IDs (must be original, valid, and non-expired)-PAN
card/Driving License/Voter ID/Passport/Aadhaar Card (With photograph)
E-Aadhaar with photograph/Ration Card with photograph. d. PwBD certificate issued by the authorized
medical officer, if claiming the relaxation under PwBD
category OR PwBD Certificate regarding physical limitation
in an examination to write as per Appendix II/ Appendix IIC given in
Information Bulletin, if claiming the relaxation under PwBD
category. OR Letter of Undertaking for using Own Scribe as
per Appendix-III given in Information Bulletin, if claiming the
relaxation under PwBD category. |
CHAPTER 4: ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA & QUALIFICATION
|
Post |
Age limit |
Qualification and Experience |
|
TGT (English / Hindi/Third
Language/ Mathematics/ Science/ Social Science). |
Not exceeding 35 years. Age relaxation for SC/ST/OBC and other
categories as applicable under the Govt. of India Rules. Up to 55 years for EMRS employees* |
ESSENTIAL QUALIFICATION: Four years integrated degree course of
Regional College of Education of NCERT or other NCTE recognized institution
in concerned subject. Or Bachelors Honors Degree in the concerned
subject. Candidate should have studied requisite subjects for at least 2
years in the 03 years degree course Or Bachelor’s Degree from a recognized
University/Institute in concerned subject. The candidate should have studied
the requisite subjects in all three years of degree course. Note: Post wise elective subjects and Languages in
the combination of subjects are as under: a) For TGT (Hindi): Hindi as a subject in all
the three years of Degree course. b) For TGT (English): English as a subject in
all the three years of Degree course. c) For TGT (Maths): (i) Bachelors Degree in Mathematics along with
Physics and any one of the following subjects: Chemistry, Electronics,
Computer Science, Statistics. (ii) In case of such Universities which
provide for only two subjects out of the six as mentioned above in the final
year of graduation, the candidate should have studied Maths and Physics in
the final year of examination and three subjects, viz, Maths, Physics and
Chemistry / Electronics / Computer Science / Statistics in the first and
second years of graduation. (iii) Candidates who have passed B.Sc. degree
with Honours in Maths subject would be considered eligible only if they have
studied Physics and Chemistry / Electronics / Computer Science / Statistics
in any of the two years of the course. Candidates with B.Sc. (Hons.) in
Physics or Chemistry are not eligible for the post of TGT
(Maths). d) For TGT (Science): -Botany, Zoology and
Chemistry. |
|
(i) The candidate should have studied Botany,
Zoology and Chemistry during all the three years of study in
graduation. (ii) In case of such Universities which
provide for only two subjects in the final year of graduation, the candidates
should have studied any of the two subjects out of Botany, Zoology and
Chemistry in the final year of examination and all the three subjects, viz.
Botany, Zoology and Chemistry in the first and second years of
graduation. (iii) In case of Honours Degree in any of the
above mentioned three subjects, the candidate must have studied other two
subjects in any of the two years of the course. e) For TGT (Social Studies): (i) The candidate should have studied any of
the two subjects out of the following subject combination at graduation
level: (a) History with Geography/ Economics/
Political Science OR (b) Geography with History/ Economics/
Political Science (in other words candidates should have studied any two
subjects out of History, Geography, Economics and Political Science, in which
one must be either History or Geography) (ii) History/Geography as above should have
been studied for all three years in the Graduation. (iii) In case of
Honours Degree in History the candidate should have studied Geography
/Economics/Political Science in any of the two years of the course. Similarly
in case of Honours degree in Geography, the candidate should have studied
History/Economics/Political Science in any of the two years of the course.
Candidates with B.A.(Honours) in Economics or Political Science are not
eligible for the post of TGT (Social Studies.) f) For TGT (Third Language): Concerned Language
as a subject / elective subject in all the three years of Degree
Course. And (for all TGTs) (B) Passed the Central Teacher Eligibility
Test (CTET) conducted by CBSE in accordance with the guidelines framed by the
NCTE, for the purpose. (C) B.Ed. Degree* |
|
Post |
Vacancies |
|
TGT |
5660 |
|
Hostel Warden (Male) |
335 |
|
Hostel Warden (Female) |
334 |
|
Total |
6329 |
|
*Note: B.Ed. degree not applicable for 04 years
integrated degree course as mentioned in sub clause (C) above. |
||
|
TGT (Music) Not exceeding 35 years. Age relaxation for SC/ST/OBC and other
categories as applicable under the Govt. of India Rules. Up to 55 years for EMRS employees* |
Essential Qualification: A Bachelors Degree with Music from a
recognized University/Institution |
|
|
TGT (Art) |
Not exceeding 35 years. Age relaxation for SC/ST/OBC and other
categories as applicable under the Govt. of India Rules. Up to 55 years for EMRS employees* |
Essential Qualification: Degree in Fine Arts/Crafts from a recognized
University. Or B.Ed. Degree in Fine Arts from Regional
College of Education. |
|
TGT (Physical Education Teacher) |
Not exceeding 35 years. Age relaxation for SC/ST/OBC and other
categories as applicable under the Govt. of India Rules. Up to 55 years for EMRS employees* |
Essential Qualification: Bachelor degree in Physical Education from a
recognized institution/university |
|
TGT (Librarian) |
Not exceeding 35 years. Age relaxation for SC/ST/OBC and other
categories as applicable under the Govt. of India Rules. Up to 55 years for EMRS employees* |
Essential Qualification: Degree in Library Science from a recognized
Institution/University Or Graduation with one-year diploma in Library
Science from a recognized Institution. |
|
Hostel Warden Not exceeding 35 years. Age relaxation for SC/ST/OBC and other
categories as applicable under the Govt. of India Rules. Up to 55 years for EMRS employees* |
Four years integrated degree course of
Regional College of Education of NCERT or other NCTE recognized institution
in concerned subject. OR Bachelor’s Degree from a recognized
university/institute |
*EMRS employees are those who are appointed on regular pay scales for EMRS. Note:
• In case of candidates applying for the post of TGTs, they should have valid CTET-certificate • Those applying in response to ESSE-2023 advertisement should satisfy themselves regarding their eligibility for the post applied for.
• Consideration of application at the time of written (OMR Based) test will be provisional only. • Verification of documents shall be carried out by NESTS before appointment. • The candidate must have certificate of minimum required qualification at the time of submission of application.
• At any stage of the recruitment process, including after recruitment or joining, if any of the following is detected, the said applicant will be liable to be removed, disqualified, prosecuted and debarred for all appointments in EMRS, NESTS and her/his application/appointment will be rejected forthwith, if the applicant:
o has provided wrong information or submitted
false documents; or
o has suppressed relevant information; or
o has resorted to unfair means during the
Recruitment process; or
o is found guilty of impersonation; or
o has created disturbance affecting the smooth conduct of the written (OMR Based) test at the test centre/venue; or
o has uploaded non-human or irrelevant photograph
4.2 Age Relaxation Policy:
Age
Relaxation is permissible to various applicants as under
|
Sl. No. |
Category of Persons |
Extent of age Relaxation/Concession |
|
(a) |
Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe |
5 years |
|
(b) |
Other Backward Classes (NCL) |
3 years |
|
(c) |
Candidates with 3 years continuous service in
Central Govt. provided the posts are in same or allied cadres. |
5 years |
|
(d) |
Persons ordinarily domiciled in the UT of
Jammu & Kashmir during 01.01.1980 to 31.12.1989 |
5 years |
|
(e) |
Women (All Category) only if applying for TGT posts |
10 years |
|
(f) |
Persons with disabilities (including women) (i) SC/ST (ii) OBC (iii) General For woman with disability, clause (e) is
not applicable |
15 years 13 years 10 years |
|
(g) |
For other than permanent employees working in
EMRS as on 01/01/2023 and is working till date |
55 years |
|
(h) |
EMRS employees – who are appointed on regular
pay scales for EMRS. |
55 years |
|
(i) |
Ex-Servicemen who have put in not less than
six months continuous service in Armed Forces (Army, Navy and Air
Force) shall be allowed to deduct the period of such service from
his/her actual age and if the resultant age does not exceed maximum age
limit prescribed for the post by more than three years, he/she shall be
deemed to satisfy the condition regarding age limit. (Important: Such ex-serviceman who are already
employed as regular civil employees under Government by availing
benefit of reservation as ex-serviceman are entitled for age relaxation
only as provided under extant rules.) |
|
Note:
(i) The age of the candidate should not exceed more than 55 Years
as on 18/08/2023 after considering all the relaxation/concession in any
given case.
(ii) All the concessions mentioned above will be
concurrent i.e. If a person is eligible for more than one concession,
only one of the concessions of the highest permissible limit, will be
granted.
(iii) Non-permanent teaching staff working in EMRSs as on
01/01/2023 and working till date shall be eligible for age relaxation up to 55
years including all relaxations. There will not be any relaxation in the
minimum eligibility criteria for the post they wish to apply for.
यह भी पढ़े : EMRS PGT भर्ती परीक्षा अपडेट नोटिस
4.3 Economically Weaker Section (EWS)
Reservation Policy:
(As
per DoPT OM No.36039/1/2019-Estt(Res) dated 31st January 2019)
a. Candidates who are not covered under the
scheme of reservation for SC/ST/OBC and whose family gross annual income
is below Rs. 8 Lakh (Rupees Eight Lakh) shall be eligible for benefit of
reservation for EWS. The income shall also include income from all sources
i.e., salary, agriculture, business, profession etc. for the financial
year prior to the year of application. Also, candidates whose family owns
or possesses any of the following assets shall be excluded from being
identified as EWS, irrespective of family income: -
i.
5 Acres of agriculture land and above.
ii.
Residential flat of 1000 Sq Ft and above.
iii. Residential plot of 100 Sq yards and above in notified
municipalities.
iv. Residential plot of 200 Sq Yd and above in areas other than
the notified municipalities.
b. The property held by a family in different
locations or different places / cities would be clubbed while applying
the land or property holding test to determine EWS status. (The term Family –
for this purpose will include the person who seeks benefit of reservation,
his/her parents and siblings below the age of 18 years as also his/ her
spouse and children below the age of 18 years).
c. The benefit of reservation under EWS can be
availed upon production of an income and asset certificate issued by a
competent authority. The income and asset certificate issued by any one
of the following authorities shall only be accepted as candidate’s claim as
belonging to EWS:-
i. District Magistrate / Additional District
Magistrate / Collector / Deputy Commissioner / Additional Deputy
Commissioner / 1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate / Sub
Divisional Magistrate / Taluka Magistrate / Executive Magistrate / Extra
Assistant Commissioner; or
ii. Chief Presidency Magistrate / Additional Chief Presidency
Magistrate / Presidency Magistrate: or
iii.
Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar; or
iv. Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidates and /
or his / her family normally resides.
d. The candidate applying against the vacancies reserved for EWS must
possess Income and asset certificate as on closing date of online
application for this advertisement. Accordingly, these candidates are
required to produce valid Income and asset certificate during
documentation stage. And asset certificate should be valid for the year
in which this recruitment notification is published. In case of non-
compliance of aforesaid stipulations, their claim for reserved status
under EWS shall not be entertained and the candidature of such candidates,
if fulfilling all the eligibility conditions for General (UR) category,
shall be considered under General (UR) vacancies only.
4.4 Facilities for PwBD candidates to appear
in the exam:
i. Persons with disability of 40% or more, if so
desires, will have to bring their own scribe to assist them in the
examination. The facility of Scribe will be allowed to any person with
benchmark disability as defined under section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016 and
has limitation in writing including that of speed if so desired by him /
her. In case of persons with benchmark disabilities in the category of
blindness, locomotor disability (both arms affected- BA) and cerebral
palsy, the facility of scribe will be allowed, if so desired by the
person.
ii. In case of other category of persons with
benchmark disabilities, the provision of scribe will be allowed on
production of a certificate to the effect that the person concerned has
physical limitation to write, and scribe is essential to write
examination on his behalf, from the Chief Medical Officer/Civil
Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a Government Hearth Care Institution as
per proforma at Appendix II.
iii. The qualification of the scribe should be at least one step
below the qualification of the candidates taking the examination. The
candidates with benchmark disabilities and those covered under 2 (s)
of RPwD Act,2016 opting for own scribe shall be required to submit details
of the own scribe at the time of examination as per proforma at Appendix III.
In addition, the scribe has to produce a valid ID proof (PAN, Aadhar Card,
Driving Licence etc.) in original at the time of examination. A photocopy
of the ID proof of the scribe signed by the candidates as well as the
scribe will be submitted along with proforma at Appendix III. If
subsequently it is found that the qualification of the scribe is not as
declared by the candidate, then the candidate shall forfeit his/ her
right to the post and claims relating thereto.
iv. The facility of scribe and/or
compensatory time shall be granted to those persons with specified
disabilities covered under the definition of Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act,
2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said
Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty
in writing subject to production of a certificate to the effect that
person concerned has limitation to write and that scribe is essential to
write examination on his/her behalf from the competent medical authority
of a Government healthcare institution as per proforma at Appendix-II C
v. Compensatory time to be allowed in PwBD case
is 20 minutes per hour of examination. All candidates with disability not
availing the facility of scribe may be allowed additional time of one
hour for examination of three hours duration.
vi. Reservation for person with disabilities in
r/o the current year vacancies willbe given as per the rules. No
candidate will be permitted for the written (OMR Based) test without the
proper Admit Card.
CHAPTER 5: SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION FORM 5.1 As per instructions contained on the website
and in the application form.
CHAPTER 6. UNFAIR MEANS PRACTICES AND BREACH OF
EXAMINATION RULES
6.1 Definition of Unfair Means Practices
Unfair Means practice is an activity that allows a candidate to
gain an unfair advantage over other candidates. It includes, but is not
limited to:
a) Being in possession
of any item or article which has been prohibited or can be used for unfair
practices including any stationery item, communication device,
accessories, eatable items, ornaments or any other material or
information relevant or not relevant to the examination in the paper
concerned;
b) Using someone to write examination (impersonation) or preparing
material for copying;
c) Breaching examination rules or any direction issued by NESTS in
connection with ESSE-2023 examination from time to time;
d) Assisting other candidate to engage in malpractices, giving or
receiving assistance directly or indirectly of any kind or attempting to
do so;
e) Contacting or communicating or trying to do so with any person,
other than the Examination Staff, during the examination time in the
Examination Centre;
f) Threatening any of the officials connected with the conduct of
the examination or threatening any of the candidates;
g) Using or attempting to use any other undesirable method or
means in connection with the examination; h) Manipulation and fabrication of
online documents viz. Admit Card, Self-Declaration, etc.; i) Forceful
entry/exit from Examination Centre/Hall;
j) Use or attempted use of any electronic device after entering
the Examination Centre;
k) Affixing/uploading of wrong/morphed photographs/signatures on
the Application Form/Admit Card/Proforma;
l) Creating obstacles in smooth and fair conduct of examination.
m) Any other malpractices declared as Unfair Means by the NESTS.
6.2. Punishment for using Unfair means practices
During the course of, before or after the examination if a
candidate indulges in any of the above or similar practice, he/she shall
be deemed to have used unfair practices and booked under UNFAIRMEANS(U.F.M.)
case shall be disqualified. The candidate shall also be liable for
criminal action and /or any other action as deemed fit.
6.3. Cancellation of Result
The result of ESSE-2023 of the candidate(s) who indulge in Unfair
means Practiceswill be cancelled and will not be declared.
Appendix-IV
List of Examination Cities
The Examination will be conducted in the following Cities:-
|
CITY
CODE |
STATE |
EXAMINATION
CITY |
|
101 |
ANDAMAN &
NICOBAR |
PORT BLAIR |
|
102 |
ANDHRA PRADESH |
VIJAYAWADA |
|
103 |
ARUNACHAL
PRADESH |
ITANAGAR |
|
104 |
ASSAM |
GUWAHATI |
|
105 |
BIHAR |
PATNA |
|
106 |
CHANDIGARH |
CHANDIGARH |
|
107 |
CHHATTISGARH |
RAIPUR |
|
108 |
DADRA
AND NAGAR HAVELI |
DADRA |
|
109 |
DAMAN
AND DIU |
SILVASSA |
|
110 |
DELHI (NCT
DELHI) |
NEW DELHI |
|
111 |
GOA |
PANAJI |
|
112 |
GUJARAT |
GANDHINAGAR |
|
113 |
HARYANA |
CHANDIGARH |
|
114 |
HIMACHAL PRADESH |
SHIMLA |
|
115 |
JAMMU AND
KASHMIR |
SRINAGAR |
|
116 |
JHARKHAND |
RANCHI |
|
117 |
KARNATAKA |
BENGALURU |
|
118 |
KERALA |
THIRUVANANTHAPURAM |
|
119 |
LADAKH |
LEH |
|
120 |
LAKSHADWEEP |
KAVARATTI |
|
121 |
MADHYA PRADESH |
BHOPAL |
|
122 |
MAHARASHTRA |
MUMBAI |
|
123 |
MANIPUR |
IMPHAL |
|
124 |
MEGHALAYA |
SHILLONG |
|
125 |
MIZORAM |
AIZWAL |
|
126 |
NAGALAND |
KOHIMA |
|
127 |
ODISHA |
BHUBANESHWAR |
|
128 |
PUDUCHERRY |
PUDUCHERRY |
|
129 |
PUNJAB |
CHANDIGARH |
|
130 |
RAJASTHAN |
JAIPUR |
|
131 |
SIKKIM |
GANGTOK |
|
132 |
TAMIL NADU |
CHENNAI |
|
133 |
TELANGANA |
HYDERABAD |
|
134 |
TRIPURA |
AGARTALA |
|
135 |
UTTAR PRADESH |
LUCKNOW |
|
136 |
UTTARAKHAND |
DEHRADUN |
|
137 |
WEST BENGAL |
KOLKATA |
The candidates have to select their preference of examination cities in the online application form. While every effort will be made to allot a Centre in one of the cities opted by the candidate, the NESTS reserves the right to allot a Centre in the City other than that of Candidate’s choice anywhere in India. The NESTS has the right to conduct the examination at all the cities notified in the advertisement or any one of the cities or any other cities depending upon the number of the candidates and other compulsions. In case the number of candidates in any of the notified City is very less for running the Examination Centre or any other specific reason, the NESTS at its discretion may not conduct the Examination in that City and the Candidates who had opted that city as 1st Choice may be allotted Examination Centre in other city opted as 2nd or 3rd choice or any other city. Further, NESTS reserves the right to modify / cancel the city/centre opted by candidates due to administrative reasons, if any. Decision of NESTS will be final. Under no circumstances, the City/Centre once allotted shall be changed.
emrs TGT परीक्षा के बारे में महत्वपूर्ण अपडेट :
emrs के कुछ शिक्षको द्वारा कोर्ट में याचिका दाखिल की गयी थी | इसलिए परीक्षा पर रोक लगाया गया था लेकिन यह अभी हटाया जायेगा और भर्ती प्रक्रिया जारी रहेगी ऐसा भर्ती प्रक्रिया से जुड़े एक महत्वपूर्ण संवाददाता ने बताया है | इससे जाहिर है की भर्ती होगी | इसके बारे निर्णय कोर्ट अक्टूबर में सुनाने वाले है | इसलिए यह परीक्षा यही साल नवंबर या दिसंबर के अंदर ली जाएगी | भर्ती प्रक्रिया से जुड़े निर्णय जब जाहिर किया जाएगा तब आपको अपडेट दी जाएगी फिलाल अपना अध्ययन जारी रखे भर्ती जरुर होगी |
Important Links
The Application form correction window for ESSE-2023 is active from 20/10/2023 to 24/10/2023 (till 11:59 PM) for all candidates.
Correction Window for the post of TGT
Correction Window for the post of Hostel Warden
Correction Window for the post of Principal
Correction Window for the post of PGT
Correction Window for the post of Non-Teaching
EKLAVYA MODEL RESIDENTIAL SCHOOLS STAFF SELECTION EXAM (ESSE) - 2023
The Recruitment examination for teaching and non-teaching posts for EMRSs through ESSE-2023 shall be conducted by CBSE in the month of December as per the schedule given below.
Details of exam:
Mode: Offline (OMR Sheets based)
S. No. | Post | Date of Examination |
1 | Principal | 16/12/2023 (Morning) |
2 | PGT | 16/12/2023 (Evening) |
3 | Hostel Warden | 17/12/2023(Morning) |
4 | Junior Secretariat Assistant | 17/12/2023 (Evening) |
5 | Lab Attendant | 23/12/2023 (Morning) |
6 | TGT | 23/12/2023 (Evening) |
7 | TGT (Misc.) | 24/12/2023(Morning) |
8 | Accountant | 24/12/2023 (Evening) |
The following links may use to view allotted examination city and date of examination:
- Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) Recruitment 2023 for Principal : Click here
- Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) Recruitment 2023 for Post Graduate Teacher : Click here
- Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) Recruitment 2023 for Non Teaching Posts : Click here
- Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) Recruitment 2023 for Trained Graduate Teacher : Click here
- Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) Recruitment 2023 for Hostel Warden : Click here
EKLAVYA MODEL RESIDENTIAL SCHOOLS STAFF SELECTION EXAM (ESSE) - 2023
Admit Card dowinload link { alongwith Appendix-II C & Appendix-III for "PwBD as per section 2 (r)" AND "PwD as per section 2 (s)" } Click on :
4. Junior Secretariat Assistant(JSA)
Admit Card dowinload link { alongwith Appendix-II C & Appendix-III for "PwBD as per section 2 (r)" AND "PwD as per section 2 (s)" }
EMRS ALL Answer key and OMR Sheet Available : Click Here
EMRS ALL POST RESULT : CLICK HERE
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